A+ Essentials 601 Test 3

1. Which of the following best describes a motherboard?
a. An important component that connects other components together.
b. Any circuit board manufactured by IBM, the mother of all personal computers.
c. The circuit board that connects the rest of the components to the fatherboard.
d. A synonym for network interface controller card.

2. Which of the following statements about integrated motherboards is most correct?
a. The motherboard is integrated into the case and cannot be removed.
b. The power supply is integrated into the motherboard and cannot be replaced separately.
c. Sometimes, you can disable malfunctioning components and replace them with expansion cards.
d. All components that were once on expansion cards are integrated into the motherboard, and no expansion slots are available.

3. Which of the following motherboard form factors places expansion cards parallel to the motherboard?
a. NLX
b. MicroATX
c. BTX
d. ATX

4. Which of the following statements concerning chipsets is most accurate?
a. The chipset provides physical connecting points for all peripherals.
b. The CPU is the largest chip in the chipset.
c. Northbridge is the largest manufacturer of chipsets.
d. The chipset dictates how a CPU communicates with the installed peripherals.

5. All of the following are functions of the Northbridge subset of a motherboardís chipset except:
a. Manages high-speed peripheral communication
b. Manages processor-to-memory communication
c. Supports communication between peripherals, such as IDE, parallel and serial ports, and FDD, and the rest of the computer
d. Utilizes a frontside bus and a backside bus

6. Which of the following is not supported by the Southbridge?
a. Integrated audio
b. AGP
c. USB
d. PS/2 keyboard and mouse

7. Which of the following expansion slots is not paired with its characteristic color?
a. ISA: beige
b. AGP: brown
c. PCI: white
d. PCIe: black

8. Which of the following is an advantage of AMR and CNR slots?
a. Allow a motherboard to pass FCC certification more quickly
b. Make the motherboard run more efficiently
c. Increase the speed of the CPU
d. Create the frontside bus without the need for a chipset

9. Which of the following statements about PCIe slots is not true?
a. PCIe slots will not accept a PCI card.
b. The 8X slots will accept a 16X card.
c. The 32X slots will accept a 1Xcard.
d. PCIe slots are designed to replace both PCI and AGP.

10. How does a DIMM slot differ from a SIMM slot?
a. DIMM slots have fewer pins than SIMM slots.
b. The pins on one side of the DIMM slot are separate from the pins on the other side.
c. SIMM slots are not keyed.
d. DIMMs are inserted perpendicular to the slot, whereas SIMMs slide in from the side.

11. All of the following are accurate statements regarding cache memory, except:
a. More expensive SRAM is used for cache.
b. L1 cache is internal to the processor.
c. L2 cache is external to the primary CPU circuitry.
d. With enough cache, there is no need for RAM.

12. What is the term for the piece of hardware that passively draws heat away from a component?
a. Fan
b. Power supply
c. Heat sink
d. Thermal grease

13. Which of the following most accurately describes the purpose of the motherboard's power-supply connector?
a. The interface that connects the motherboard to the power supply.
b. The interface to which all internal devices connect for power.
c. The connector that joins the secondary power supply to the primary power supply.
d. The power supply has its own connectors. There is not one on the motherboard.

14. Which of the following is not a method of keyboard attachment?
a. ATX
b. AT
c. PS/2
d. USB

15. Which of the following statements about the BIOS is true?
a. The BIOS knows about all hardware installed in the computer.
b. Today's BIOS cannot be updated for new hardware.
c. You cannot alter the default settings of the BIOS.
d. The BIOS allows the processor and operating system to interact with other hardware in the computer.

16. Which two of the following might be used to allow manual configuration of certain settings right on the motherboard?
a. Fuses
b. DIP switches
c. Jumpers
d. Resistors

17. What is meant by the term CPU throttling?
a. Multiplying the CPU's rated speed for faster production
b. Short bursts of extra CPU cycles to avoid overheating the processor
c. Controlling how much of the CPU's time an application receives
d. Shutting down the CPU in times of low usage

18. What does a voltage regulator module do?
a. Prevents power spikes from making it through the power supply and into the motherboard
b. Allows the user to choose between 1 1OVAC and 220 VAC
c. Plugs into the wall power outlet to regulate what the power supply receives
d. Allows the CPU to request the voltage it needs, and then supplies that voltage

19. Which of the following is not a form of DRAM?
a. SDRAM
b. SRAM
c. DDR
d. RDRAM

20. All of the following statements about DDR SDRAM are accurate except:
a. DDR modules are named the same as SDR SDRAM modules that use the same clock rate.
b. DDR creates the effect of a clock rate that is twice as fast as that of SDR SDRAM.
c. DDR achieves a throughput of 1600MBps with a 100MHz clock rate.
d. DDR uses both edges of the bipolar clock signal to transfer data.

21. Which of the following is not a form of ROM?
a. PROM
b. EPROM
c. EEROM
d. EEPROM

22. Which of the following statements about Rambus memory is true?
a. To satisfy a dual channel with 16-bit modules, you need to install only a single module at a time.
b. Care must be taken when dealing with RDRAM because the 16- and 32-bit modules are not compatible but fit into the same slot.
c. All unused Rambus slots must have CT-RIMMs installed.
d. A 32-bit module is basically two 16-bit modules.

23. All of the following acronyms apply to floppy disks except:
a. CD
b. DD
c. ED
d. HD

24. All of the following are differences between CD-ROM and DVD-ROM technologies except:
a. DVD-ROM technologies are split between plus (+) and dash (–) formats, whereas CD-ROM has only dash formats.
b. DVD-ROM has a double-layered variant, unlike CD-ROM.
c. DVD-ROM technologies are better suited for video recordings than CD-ROM technologies.
d. A DVD+R disc has a maximum capacity four times that of a CD-R disc.

25. What is a thumb drive?
a. A hard drive that requires a recognized thumbprint before access can be granted.
b. A USB-attached solid-state flash storage solution.
c. A drive that takes disks that are roughly the size of the average human thumb.
d. A trackball mouse, which requires the use of the thumb to move the cursor on the screen.

26. All of the following are voltages supplied by a power supply except:
a. +3. 3VDC
b. -3. 3VDC
c. +5VDC
d. -12VDC

27. All of the following apply to internal peripheral power connectors except:
a. Berg and Molex
b. Red, yellow, and black wires
c. RAID
d. Keying

28. What is ATX12V 2. 0?
a. A specification that adds four connectors to the main connector of ATX12V to support PCIe
b. Another name for EPS12V
c. A software upgrade to ATX12V 1.1
d. The additional connectors added on to ATX to form ATX12V

29. What does DVI-I refer to?
a. Integrated audio and video
b. Integrated analog and digital video
c. Increased digital clarity
d. Improvised analog video that rivals the quality of pure-digital video

30. All of the following are possible points to be made in a discussion of active- and passive-matrix LCDs except:
a. An active-matrix LCD provides a transistor for each pixel, whereas a passive-matrix LCD provides one for each row and one for each column.
b. Image quality is better on an active-matrix LCD.
c. Active-matrix LCDs can be switched to passive-matrix mode to conserve power.
d. Passive-matrix LCDs respond more poorly to changes in the screen image.

31. Which pairing represents a modem jack that connects to a phone line and an Ethernet interface for twisted-pair?
a. RJ-12, RJ-45
b. RJ-Il; RJ-45
c. RJ- 11; RJ-48X
d. DE9; RJ-45

32. What is the technology that uses an RCA jack with coaxial or fiber cable for enhanced digital sound?
a. DVI
b. S/PDIF
c. HDMI
d. Minijack

33. What type of cable can be used to connect two computers back-to-back for direct transmission to one another?
a. Standard serial
b. Null modem
c. USB
d. Direct-connect

34. All of the following statements regarding the cooling of memory and hard drives are true except:
a. A passive cooling solution used with one also cools the other.
b. Passive methods, such as heat sinks, can be employed.
c. Fans and liquid cooling systems can be used as active cooling methods.
d. In some cases, no additional cooling above and beyond the standard methods employed by the system unit is required.

35. Which of the following statements about IDE is true?
a. IDE supports a theoretically unlimited number of devices on a controller.
b. When copying from one CD drive to another, it is best to have both devices on the same IDE controller.
c. With more than two installed IDE devices, faster devices should be put on the same controller, and slower devices should be put on another controller.
d. No hardware or software configuration is necessary when placing IDE devices on the same controller.

36. Which of the following is not a valid SCSI type/pin-count pairing?
a. SCSI-1; 50-pin D-sub
b. SCSI-2; 50-pin D-sub
c. SCSI-2; 68-pin D-sub
d. SCSI-3; 80-pin D-sub

37. Which of the following statements about internal and external SCSI devices is true?
a. External devices cannot be terminated, so they must not be in a position to require termination.
b. External devices are connected in the same fashion as internal devices, on a single cable with multiple connectors.
c. External devices have their own power supply.
d. External devices require no address but instead appear as one device on the bus.

38. When servicing CRT monitors, which of the following is a consideration?
a. Keep the monitor plugged in to power to retain the protective ground.
b. Discharge the flyback transformer's charging capacitor before attempting to service high-voltage components.
c. Give the monitor ten minutes after turning it off to drain dangerous charges.
d. Degauss the monitor to remove dangerous charges.

39. Which of the following is the best method for removing dust from the inside of a computer?
a. Compressed air
b. Vacuum
c. Cloth
d. Damp sponge

40. When testing resistance with a multimeter, which of the following must you take into consideration?
a. You must set the meter to measure amps.
b. You must set the meter to measure volts.
c. The multimeter sends a current between the probes that could damage other components.
d. Reversing the position of the probes will change the results.

41. Which of the following steps would not be one of the first three things to consider when troubleshooting?
a. Check the simple stuff.
b. Determine if the problem is hardware or software related.
c. Define the problem.
d. Check for user error.

42. How do beeps from the computer alert you to problems?
a. Each BIOS manufacturer uses a published series of beep codes to signal a healthy system or a variety of problems detected during POST.
b. Long before a problem becomes an issue, your computer's sound card will issue beep codes through your speaker system.
c. All BIOS manufacturers follow a common set of beep codes that are standardized in the industry.
d. Called beep codes, these signals are actually spoken English alerts of problems discovered during POST.

43. With modems that run the Hayes command set, what is the response to the command AT that indicates the modem is ready?
a. Ready
b. OK
c. Next
d. Proceed

44. You lose power to your computer while flashing an update to the BIOS. Which one of the following fixes will get you going again most easily?
a. Start the flash process again.
b. Take the computer to a manufacturer-approved service center.
c. Boot up normally, and reset the BIOS from a command prompt.
d. Reinstall the operating system.

45. If you notice that your BIOS settings do not remain and you have to set the date and time whenever you turn the power off and back on, what might be the problem?
a. The operating system needs to be reinstalled.
b. Device Manager needs to be reinstalled.
c. The voltage selector switch on the power supply is set wrong.
d. The CMOS battery needs to be replaced.

46. Which of the following is a possibility for a desktop motherboard that is generally not possible for a laptop motherboard?
a. Adding PCI expansion cards
b. Adding memory
c. Having a CPU onboard
d. Having integrated components

47. Which one of the following is not a benefit of SoDIMMs for laptops?
a. SoDIMMs are smaller than DIMMs.
b. SoDIMMs are not proprietary.
c. SoDIMMs are keyed to prevent incorrect insertion.
d. Because they are standard, one SoDIMM fits all SoDIMM-compatible laptops.

48. Regarding laptop displays, which of the following is the most reasonable expectation if you notice a dead pixel?
a. Keep plugging away until you have a real case.
b. The manufacturer should replace the pixel.
c. The manufacturer should replace the display if it is under warranty.
d. The manufacturer should replace the display regardless of the warranty coverage.

49. Which of the following should you use to clean a touch screen with a capacitive coating?
a. Regular glass cleaner
b. Denatured alcohol
c. Warm soapy water
d. A cloth dampened, but not saturated, with water

50. What is the name of the PCI-compatible technology for laptops?
a. PCIe
b. LapPCI
c. Mini PCI
d. PCI

51. Which of the following battery compositions is not rechargeable?
a. NiCad
b. NiMH
c. LiIon
d. Alkaline

52. What is the name of the power-saving mode that writes the contents of RAM to the hard drive before completely removing power from the system?
a. Suspend
b. Hibernate
c. Soft off
d. Mechanical off

53. All of the following statements about troubleshooting laptops are accurate except:
a. Video, input, and wireless networking are all areas where laptop troubleshooting differs from desktop troubleshooting.
b. Remove all external peripherals from the laptop before beginning to troubleshoot power issues.
c. Making sure the laptop is plugged in is not important because it runs on batteries as well.
d. Follow standard general troubleshooting procedures, just as you would on a desktop computer.

54. Your laptop has a wireless network adapter that appears to be active in the System Tray, but you are not able to surf the Internet unless you use a patch cord in the wired interface. Which of the following is the most likely issue?
a. The network to which you are automatically connecting requires authentication.
b. The SSID of the network you are connected to is not being broadcast.
c. The wired adapter is interfering with the wireless adapter and must be disabled.
d. The wireless adapter is disabled in Windows.

55. Which of the following statements about applications is not true?
a. An application is software written to accomplish a specific task.
b. An application relies on the operating system to perform some of its more basic tasks.
c. An operating system is not a type of application.
d. Commonly, a well-written application works on any operating system.

56. Which of the following Windows operating systems was released most recently?
a. Vista
b. XP
c. Me
d. NT

57. Which of the following represent the minimum required RAM and available hard disk space, respectively, to run Mac OS X (version 10. 4)?
a. 512MB;4GB
b. 256MB; 3GB
c. 256MB; 2GB
d. 128MB; 1GB

58. What is Microsoft's term for the area that shows only the date and time as well as icons for utilities running in the background?
a. Taskbar
b. Start menu
c. Desktop
d. System Tray

59. All of the following can be found at the top level of the Start menu of XP except:
a. All Programs
b. My Recent Documents
c. Program Files folder
d. Control Panel

60. Why is it not wise to turn off a Windows-based computer without going through the shut-down process first? (Choose two. )
a. Microsoft is unable to collect data properly on your session.
b. Running programs keep files open that can be corrupted.
c. Temporary files are left on the hard drive and tie up space.
d. Viruses can more easily attach themselves to your system.

61. Which of the following Desktop icons offers the most direct access to network resources?
a. Recycle Bin
b. My Documents
c. My Computer
d. My Network Places

62. All of the following methods always restore an object from the Recycle Bin to its original location except:
a. Open the original folder, and drag the object from the Recycle Bin into the original folder.
b. Drag the object out of the Recycle Bin, and release it.
c. Right-click the object in the Recycle Bin, and click Restore.
d. Click the object, and then click Restore This Item in the left frame.

63. Which of the following best describes Control Panel?
a. A set of shortcuts to often-used programs
b. A folder that holds your most recently used applications
c. A folder full of unrelated utilities
d. A set of applets that allows you to change the Registry without editing the Registry directly

64. In networking, which of the following is a key difference between workgroups and domains?
a. Workgroups are Microsoft associations. Domains are not.
b. Workgroups are loose associations between computers and remote resources. Domains are tighter associations with centralized security.
c. Domains are loose associations between computers and remote resources. Workgroups are tighter associations with centralized security.
d. Domains are not able to offer resources to their clients to the same extent that workgroups can.

65. What feature of Windows supports the selective activation of hardware during boot-up?
a. Last known good configuration
b. Hardware profiles
c. Hardware selection
d. Optional device activation

66. All of the following are valid events that create restore points except:
a. Every time you turn the computer on and log on to Windows
b. Whenever an application installs itself with a supported installer
c. Every 24 hours that your computer is on
d. When a Windows automatic update starts to install

67. What is the name of the database where Windows 9x and later store most of their configuration information?
a. ConfigDB
b. Registry
c. WIN.INI
d. SYSTEM.INI

68. What is the best policy regarding editing the Registry?
a. Be careful, and click Edit ~- Undo as soon as you realize you made a mistake.
b. Do so freely, but be prepared to load the last known good configuration if the system fails to boot properly.
c. Do so only as a last resort.
d. Do so freely. Windows repairs its own Registry to avoid catastrophes, when necessary.

69. Which two of the following can, by themselves, improve the situation when you receive the message that there is insufficient memory to perform an operation?
a. Increasing the size of the hard drive or adding an additional hard drive
b. Upgrading to a faster processor
c. Adding more RAM
d. Increasing the size of the swap file

70. Which of the following describes the NTOSKRNL.EXE system file?
a. Starts the loading of the operating system
b. A text file that points to the partitions where one or more operating systems are installed
c. The core of the operating system that must remain loaded at all times, never being paged to disk
d. Parses the system for current configuration information as the operating system starts, and creates the dynamic portion of the Registry

71. Which of the following most closely maps to a drive letter on a single disk?
a. Cluster
b. Partition
c. Track
d. Sector

72. Which operating system supports FAT 16 and NTFS, but not FAT32?
a. Windows 98
b. Windows NT4
c. Windows 2000
d. Windows XP

73. Which of the following best describes fragmentation?
a. When multiple partitions are created on a single physical drive.
b. When a larger file is chained across the noncontiguous gaps left by multiple smaller files.
c. When a single volume is made up of multiple physical drives.
d. The unusable disk space caused by clusters that are not used completely and cannot be shared by multiple files.

74. What is the name of the Microsoft list of Windows-compatible hardware?
a. Microsoft Compatibility List
b. Windows Compatibility List
c. Hardware Compatibility List
d. Hardware Abstraction Layer

75. When choosing a file system before installation, all of the following are sound reasons for selecting one except:
a. Go with FAT32 over FATI6 when possible.
b. Go with NTFS unless Windows 9x will be installed on the same machine and will require access to the partition.
c. Go with NTFS for partitions larger than 5 12MB.
d. Make sure the file system is the same on all partitions on the same machine.

76. What happens between the text phase of a Windows installation and the graphical phase?
a. The computer reboots.
b. A human or answer file must be present to confirm the phase transition.
c. You must change discs.
d. The computer attempts to get online and must be able to access the Internet for the entire graphical phase.

77. Which of the following Windows upgrade paths is not valid?
a. 2000 to XP
b. NT Workstation 4 to XP
c. 95 to 2000
d. Me to 2000

78. All of the following have the tendency to increase some area of system performance except:
a. Enabling large system cache
b. Using many smaller partitions rather than one large partition
c. Adjusting disk caching in Internet Explorer
d. Deleting temporary files

79. What is the EXTRACT.EXE utility used for?
a. To remove a known virus from a particular file.
b. To pull current system configuration information from the Registry.
c. To pull redundant content out of a specific file, effectively compressing the file.
d. To pull an embedded file out of a cabinet file and place it in a specified location.

80. What is the name of the disk that is created through Backup in Windows XP, similar to the way the ERD is created in Windows 2000?
a. ASR
b. EBD
c. XPBD
d. NTBD

81. Which one of the following is not a common form of scanner?
a. Laser
b. Flatbed
c. Sheet-fed
d. Handheld

82. How many components play an active role in cleaning the waste toner from the photosensitive drum in an EP laser printer?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

83. Which type of printer offers true color and works in a fashion similar to bubble-jet printers, while keeping its ink fresh longer and being less messy?
a. Dye sublimation
b. Thermal
c. Solid ink
d. Inkjet

84. Which of the following features is not commonly found on a multifunction printer?
a. Copying
b. CD burning
c. Scanning
d. Faxing

85. All of the following are differences between flatbed and sheet-fed scanners except:
a. Resolution normally suffers on sheet-fed scanners compared to flatbed scanners.
b. A flatbed scanner has a glass plate between the scan head and the object to be scanned. A sheet-fed scanner does not.
c. Speed of sheet-fed scanners normally surpasses that of flatbed scanners.
d. The scan head on a sheet-fed scanner is often stationary, whereas the scan head of a flatbed scanner moves.

86. Which of the following fixes the majority of inkjet/bubble-jet printer issues?
a. Power-cycle the printer.
b. Replace the ink cartridge.
c. Reboot the computer.
d. Check and/or replace the data cable between the printer and the computer.

87. All of the following laser-printer components can lead to blank output pages except:
a. Toner cartridge
b. Transfer corona assembly
c. Charging corona wire
d. HVPS

88. What type of server acts only as a server and not also as a workstation for direct local access?
a. Dedicated server
b. File server
c. Non-dedicated server
d. Print server

89. How many layers are represented in the OSI Reference Model, and what is the name of the top layer?
a. 4; Transport
b. 3; Network
c. 7; Application
d. 6; Presentation

90. What is the name for Microsoft's implementation of the IPX/SPX protocol suite?
a. Novell
b. NWLINK
c. TCP/IP
d. NetBEUI

91. How many octets is an IP address made up of, and how many bits is this equivalent to?
a. 6; 48
b. 32; 4
c. l; 32
d. 4; 32

92. What is the highest decimal value that can be represented with 8 bits?
a. 128
b. 255
c. 256
d. 512

93. RG-x generally denotes what kind of transmission medium?
a. Coaxial
b. Twisted pair
c. Fiber
d. Wireless

94. Which of the following devices is considered to operate at Layer 3 of the 051 Model?
a. Hub
b. Bridge
c. Switch
d. Router

95. What type of address is embedded in the circuitry of network interfaces and normally does not change for that particular device?
a. Physical or MAC
b. IPX
c. IP
d. AppleTalk

96. What is the difference between PAP and CHAP?
a. PAP is not an authentication protocol. CHAP is.
b. PAP sends passwords in clear text across the link. CHAP does not.
c. PAP is more secure and harder to hack than CHAP.
d. PAP is the next generation of CHAP.

97. What is a firewall?
a. Another name for a router.
b. A hardened case that prevents fire damage to the computer.
c. A hardware or software solution that isolates two or more networks from each other and permits or denies traffic based on configurable security rules.
d. Another name for a gateway.

98. Given a suspected hazardous material, what is the best resource for you to discover proper handling and disposal practices?
a. Your local recycling center.
b. The vendor of the material.
c. The material's MSDS.
d. Calling the EPA directly.

99. Which of the following battery compositions is not considered hazardous waste but should still be recycled?
a. Lead-acid
b. NiCad
c. Alkaline
d. LiIon

100. All of the following are good behavior except:
a. Be on time for appointments.
b. Own up to issues you cause during your service call.
c. Tactfully attempt to keep your customers on the schedule to which you have agreed so that your business as a whole does not suffer.
d. Treat sensitive information that you come across with discretion.